1wildhorse
New member
hi guys.im new to this site,but like many others im having a problem with our favourite super store.my issue is current,there is a lawsuit in place,and i dont really want to go into too many details,because there are many spies here.....
anyway the upshot of my case is that i sued our friends.they defaulted,by not replying to the claim within the time period.i went to court,and the judge ruled in my favour.however i just learned within the last few days that they have conveniently attempted to sidestep the issue.the manufacturor has signed an agreement(without my knowledge) with CT that THEY accept full responsibility for the crappy product.
so my question is this.
under the sale of goods act british columbia i sued CT under the IMPLIED warranty that states that a product must function for a reasonable period of time.is this implied warranty always a condition between seller(CT) and the buyer(myself),or will they be able to argue that because the manufacturor(which i honestly believe they deliberately cooked this up between themselves in order to avoid having to pay up)agreed to take full responsibility for the goods in question?its kinda despicable is it not?
also because they didnt respond to my original claim within the legal timeframe,is this matter irrelevent?
i value your opinions on this subject.
thanks in advance
anyway the upshot of my case is that i sued our friends.they defaulted,by not replying to the claim within the time period.i went to court,and the judge ruled in my favour.however i just learned within the last few days that they have conveniently attempted to sidestep the issue.the manufacturor has signed an agreement(without my knowledge) with CT that THEY accept full responsibility for the crappy product.
so my question is this.
under the sale of goods act british columbia i sued CT under the IMPLIED warranty that states that a product must function for a reasonable period of time.is this implied warranty always a condition between seller(CT) and the buyer(myself),or will they be able to argue that because the manufacturor(which i honestly believe they deliberately cooked this up between themselves in order to avoid having to pay up)agreed to take full responsibility for the goods in question?its kinda despicable is it not?
also because they didnt respond to my original claim within the legal timeframe,is this matter irrelevent?
i value your opinions on this subject.
thanks in advance